Clarus Financial Technology

Spreadovers vs SOFR

With the upcoming switch from Fed Funds to SOFR discounting at CCPs, we have a change in the type of rate being used to discount USD interest rate swaps.

What does this mean for the largest pool of inter-dealer liquidity – the Spreadover, or Swap Spread, market?

Spreadovers

USD spreadovers account for about 70% of interdealer volumes. They perform a particularly important role:

Currently, virtually all USD Spreadovers have the following characteristics:

However, over the next few months, Spreadovers are about to change. First up is the effect of the discount switch at CCPs.

Step One: Spreadovers after October 16th

After October 16th, the swap leg will subtly change. The interest rate used to calculated PAI (PAA in the case of an STM swap) will become USD SOFR.

Popular screens used in the pricing of deals, such as ICAP 19901 and Tulletts SMKR99, will soon represent a different instrument. SOFR discounting will be the stated market convention.

Tulletts SMKR page showing UST vs SOFR Spreadovers in column 4. All of these swaps will soon be SOFR discounted.

The primary intention of these broker pages is clear. They provide transparency and accuracy over where market standard instruments are. This allows capital markets transactions, such as bond issues, to price efficiently. Certainly much more efficiently than if everyone is arguing about where the mid-market reference rate is. It is therefore vital that market participants understand the changes that are about to occur to the underlying transactions on these pages.

It may sound like a subtle change, but consider the potential difference in forwards on these discount curves. 30Y SOFR-Fed Funds basis last traded at over 8 basis points, implying quite a change in funding curves, particularly in forward space.

1y1y forwards along the SOFR and Fed Funds curves

Step Two: Consider what a Spreadover currently represents

It is interesting to consider what a Spreadover represents in LIBOR space.

I like to think that this worldview was accurate, once upon a time. However, once the swap leg becomes either a) cleared or b) daily margined you can argue that we are looking at two very different financial instruments.

All things considered, a modern Spreadover trade is therefore a world away from an actual expression of long-term credit funding versus the “risk free” curve.

We can tentatively define a spreadover under current conditions as:

Step Three: What is a Spreadover vs SOFR meant to be?

And now, added to this existential assessment of what a swap spread really represents, we introduce a brand new instrument. The swap is now done versus SOFR, as shown on the new ICAP page 19901S below:

ICAP Page 19901 is evolving into 19901S in anticipation of increased SOFR activity across all products

If (when) liquidity transitions out of LIBOR products and into RFRs, Spreadovers may predominantly trade versus SOFR. This sounds like a fundamentally different product to the one used today.

A Spreadover traded with the swap versus SOFR has the following characteristics:

Now recall what SOFR actually is – an overnight cost of Repo.

So we are compounding the daily cost of Repo versus holding a UST that we could…repo out! If you take the cashflows of these actual trades, you could introduce a no-arbitrage argument to state the value of a Spreadover traded versus SOFR should always be zero. Irrespective of the term.

We are essentially stating that the Spreadover curve has become the term repo curve.

The Cost of Term Funding

From the ICAP screen we can see that the Spreadover curve versus SOFR is far from flat. It is deeply negative sloping:

30YR swap spreads are at -61 basis points! That is both:

I find this one of the most fascinating insights into how bank capital regulation, term funding and liquidity premiums can all combine to completely override the economic fundamentals of what a financial contract is meant to capture in its essence.

So I will leave our readers with one final question.

Would a cash-settled Spreadover contract trade at flat versus SOFR across the whole curve? Or are the supply/demand dynamics so severe that even a theoretically pure contract will deviate from its intended purpose?

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